Technician question pool 2026-2030

Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?

1. Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible
2. Providing communications for international contesting
3. Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Section 97.1 lists five purposes of the Amateur Radio Service. One of them is advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art. Contesting and "personal communications for as many citizens as possible" are not listed purposes.

Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?

1. ARRL
2. Homeland Security
3. The FCC
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) writes and enforces the Part 97 rules. The ARRL is a private membership organization, not a regulator.

What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

1. It is required when transmitting emergency messages
2. It is encouraged when using phone emissions
3. It is required when in contact with foreign stations
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. The rules encourage, but do not require, a standard phonetic alphabet when you identify by voice (phone). It helps your call sign come through clearly.

How do you receive official notification of your new license and call sign after passing the exam?

1. Email from the FCC with a link to download the license grant
2. USPS First-Class Mail from the FCC
3. Email from the lead volunteer examiner
4. USPS First-Class Mail from the lead volunteer examiner

Answer A. The FCC no longer mails paper licenses. After your application is processed, the FCC emails you a link to download your official license grant.

What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?

1. A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination
2. An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license
3. The license appears in the FCC ULS database
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Your license exists once it appears in the FCC Universal Licensing System (ULS) database. A CSCE or an email from the VEC is not proof of a license grant.

On which of the following HF frequencies can automatically controlled amateur propagation beacons be found?

1. Anywhere in the Technician portion of 10 meters
2. Anywhere, if they are registered with the FCC
3. In a specific portion of each of the HF Technician bands
4. On ten meters, between 28.200 MHz and 28.300 MHz

Answer D. Automatically controlled HF beacons are limited to 28.200 to 28.300 MHz on 10 meters. Memory hook: beacons live at 28.2.

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?

1. Any satellite orbiting Earth
2. A manned satellite orbiting Earth
3. An amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface
4. An amateur station using amateur radio satellites for relay of signals

Answer C. Part 97 defines a space station as an amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface. It does not have to be manned.

Who recommends transmit/receive channels for repeater and auxiliary stations?

1. A Frequency Spectrum Manager appointed by the FCC
2. A Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs
3. An FCC Regional Field Office
4. The International Telecommunication Union

Answer B. Repeater and auxiliary channel recommendations come from a volunteer frequency coordinator recognized by local amateurs. The FCC does not appoint coordinators.

Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

1. The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy
2. The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators
3. Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations
4. The FCC Regional Field Office

Answer C. Local or regional amateurs whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations choose their frequency coordinator. It is a volunteer, community-run system.

Besides an FCC-issued amateur operator license, what is required to be the control operator of a Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) Station?

1. A written recommendation by the local ARRL Emergency Coordinator
2. Membership in the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)
3. Certification of current enrollment by a civil defense organization
4. Nothing

Answer C. To be a RACES control operator, you need an FCC amateur license plus certification of current enrollment from a civil defense organization. ARES membership is not enough.

Which of the following is prohibited?

1. International communications on VHF bands and higher frequencies
2. Willful or malicious interference
3. Third-party traffic using digital modes
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. Willful or malicious interference is prohibited by 97.101(d). International VHF contacts and digital third-party traffic are allowed when other rules are followed.

Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?

1. 28.050 MHz to 28.150 MHz
2. 28.100 MHz to 28.300 MHz
3. 28.300 MHz to 28.500 MHz
4. 28.500 MHz to 28.600 MHz

Answer C. Technicians have voice (phone) privileges on 10 meters from 28.300 to 28.500 MHz. Below 28.300 MHz they may use only CW, RTTY and data.

Which of the following U.S. amateur radio operators are allowed to contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?

1. Only amateurs with a General class or higher license
2. Any amateur with a Technician class or higher license
3. Only amateurs with a General class or higher license, and NASA approval
4. Any amateurs with a Technician class or higher license, and NASA approval

Answer B. Any amateur with a Technician or higher license may contact the ISS on VHF and UHF amateur frequencies. No NASA approval is needed.

Which frequency is in the 6-meter amateur band?

1. 49.00 MHz
2. 52.525 MHz
3. 28.50 MHz
4. 222.15 MHz

Answer B. The 6-meter band runs from 50 to 54 MHz, so 52.525 MHz is inside it. 52.525 MHz is the national FM simplex calling frequency for 6 meters.

Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?

1. 6 meters
2. 20 meters
3. 70 centimeters
4. 2 meters

Answer D. The 2-meter band covers 144 to 148 MHz. 146.52 MHz is the national 2-meter FM simplex calling frequency.

Which of the following bands include frequencies where Technicians are authorized to use digital modes such as FT8?

1. 10 meters
2. 6 meters
3. 2 meters
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Technicians may use digital modes such as FT8 in their 10-meter segment (28.000 to 28.300 MHz) and throughout their VHF/UHF privileges, including 6 and 2 meters.

On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

1. None
2. 10-meter band only
3. 80-meter, 40-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter bands
4. 30-meter band only

Answer B. On HF, Technicians have phone privileges only on 10 meters (28.300 to 28.500 MHz). Their other HF privileges are CW only, or CW and data on 10 meters.

Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?

1. 50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz
2. 219 MHz to 220 MHz and 420.0 MHz to 420.1 MHz
3. 902.0 MHz to 902.1 MHz
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. The bottom 100 kHz of 6 meters (50.0 to 50.1 MHz) and 2 meters (144.0 to 144.1 MHz) are reserved for CW only.

How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?

1. U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them
2. U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments
3. International communications are not permitted in those segments
4. Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments

Answer A. Where amateurs are a secondary user, other (primary) services also use the band. You may hear non-amateur stations there and must not interfere with them.

Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

1. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
2. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
3. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. All three reasons apply. Your frequency display can be slightly off, transmitters can drift, and your signal's sidebands extend beyond the frequency you set. Any of these can put part of your signal outside the band.

Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

1. Only in sub-bands allocated to General class or higher licensees
2. Only on repeaters
3. In at least some segment of all these bands
4. On any band if the power is limited to 25 watts

Answer C. Every amateur band above 50 MHz has at least some segment where SSB phone is permitted.

What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?

1. 200 watts
2. 100 watts
3. 50 watts
4. 10 watts

Answer A. In their HF segments (80, 40, 15 and 10 meters), Technicians are limited to 200 watts PEP output.

Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

1. 50 watts
2. 100 watts
3. 500 watts
4. 1500 watts

Answer D. Above 30 MHz, Technicians may generally use up to 1500 watts PEP, the same maximum as other license classes. Some specific band segments have lower limits.

For which classes of amateur radio licenses does the FCC currently issue new licenses?

1. Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra
2. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra
3. Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
4. Technician, General, Amateur Extra

Answer D. The FCC currently issues new licenses in only three classes: Technician, General and Amateur Extra. Novice and Advanced licenses can be renewed but are no longer issued.

Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

1. Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license
2. Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license
3. Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
4. Any licensed amateur

Answer D. Any licensed amateur may apply for a vanity call sign. The shorter formats available depend on license class, but every class can apply.

What types of international communications are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations permitted to make?

1. Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character
2. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
3. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges; all other communications are prohibited
4. Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

Answer A. International contacts must be incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service or be remarks of a personal character. Business communications are not allowed.

What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?

1. Fine and suspension of operator license
2. Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
3. Revocation of access to the license record in the FCC system
4. Nothing; there is no such requirement

Answer B. The FCC requires a current email address on file (97.23). If the FCC cannot reach you, it can revoke your station license or suspend your operator license.

Which of the following is a valid Group D call sign format for Technician class?

1. KF1XXX
2. KA1X
3. W1XX
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. Group D call signs use the 2-by-3 format: a K or W prefix plus one letter, a digit, and three letters, like KF1XXX. These are issued to Technician and General licensees.

Which of the following statements is true about using your amateur radio license when operating aboard a vessel or craft in international waters?

1. Amateur operation is prohibited in international waters
2. You may only operate during maritime emergencies
3. You need special FCC authorization for maritime mobile operation
4. You may operate from a US-documented vessel with the master's permission

Answer D. You may operate from a U.S.-documented vessel in international waters, with the master's permission. No special FCC authorization is needed.

How long before the expiration date may an amateur radio license renewal be requested?

1. 30 days
2. 90 days
3. 6 months
4. 1 year

Answer B. You can request a renewal as early as 90 days before your license expires.

What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?

1. Five years
2. Eight years
3. Ten years
4. Life

Answer C. Amateur licenses are normally issued for a ten-year term.

What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

1. Two years
2. Three years
3. Five years
4. Ten years

Answer A. After a license expires there is a two-year grace period. During that time you can renew without retesting.

How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?

1. Immediately on receiving your Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)
2. As soon as your operator/station license grant appears on the ARRL website
3. As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database
4. As soon as you receive your license in the mail from the FCC

Answer C. For a first license, you may not transmit until your license grant appears in the FCC ULS database. A CSCE alone does not authorize a new licensee to transmit.

If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?

1. Yes, for up to two years
2. Yes, as soon as you apply for renewal
3. Yes, for up to one year
4. No, you must wait until the license has been renewed

Answer D. The grace period lets you renew without retesting, but you may not transmit until the license is actually renewed.

With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

1. Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications
2. Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications
3. Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
4. Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL)

Answer A. You may not communicate with stations in countries whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications. The ARRL and IARU do not make this determination.

Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?

1. Announcements of upcoming ham radio operating events
2. Broadcasting
3. International Morse Code Practice
4. Telecommand or transmissions of telemetry

Answer B. Broadcasting (transmissions intended for the general public) is prohibited. Some one-way transmissions are allowed, such as code practice, telemetry, telecommand and brief ham-related announcements.

When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?

1. Only when using a remote station during a contest
2. Only when transmitting certain approved digital codes
3. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or model craft
4. Never

Answer C. Codes or ciphers that obscure meaning are allowed only for control commands sent to space stations or radio-controlled model craft.

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

1. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications
2. When the music produces no spurious emissions
3. When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour
4. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz

Answer A. Music is prohibited except when it is incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications, such as audio relayed from a NASA mission.

When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

1. Never
2. When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee, or the control operator, or their close relatives
3. When no profit is made on the sale
4. When selling amateur radio equipment and not on a regular basis

Answer D. You may announce amateur radio equipment for sale or trade, provided you do not do so on a regular basis. Running a business is prohibited.

What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

1. The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
2. Any such language is prohibited
3. The International Telecommunications Union (ITU) maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
4. There is no such prohibition

Answer B. Obscene or indecent language is prohibited (97.113(a)(4)). Neither the FCC nor the ITU publishes an official word list.

Which of the following is an example of an auxiliary station?

1. A station sending one-way transmissions between a remote repeater receiver and the main repeater transmitter
2. A backup radio for emergency use in case the main station radio fails
3. A station used in the Military Auxiliary Radio System for linking government and amateur stations in a digital network
4. A second station utilized in multi-operator contest stations

Answer A. An auxiliary station sends point-to-point communications within a system of amateur stations. A link between a remote repeater receiver and the main repeater transmitter is a typical example.

In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

1. When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer
2. When the communication is a part of classroom instruction at an educational institution
3. When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A control operator may be paid when the communication is part of classroom instruction at an educational institution, such as a teacher using a station in class.

When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

1. When such communications are directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
2. When broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle
3. Where non-commercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network
4. Never

Answer A. Amateurs may support news gathering only when the communication is directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property, and no other means is available.

How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?

1. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
2. Any transmission made by the licensed station
3. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
4. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public

Answer D. Part 97 defines broadcasting as transmissions intended for reception by the general public. Amateur transmissions should be directed to other amateurs.

When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?

1. When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
2. When the transmissions are unmodulated
3. When the transmitted power level is below 0.1 watt
4. When transmitting signals to control model craft

Answer D. Signals sent to control model craft do not have to be identified. Station adjustments and low-power tests still require identification.

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

1. Identify the transmitting station
2. Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time
3. Notify the FCC of the transmissions
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. Test transmissions must be identified with your call sign, like any other transmission. There is no special time window or FCC notice required.

When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?

1. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
2. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
3. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
4. Never

Answer D. An amateur station must always have a control operator when it transmits. Even an automatically controlled repeater has a responsible control operator.

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

1. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
2. A General class or higher licensee with a satellite operator certification
3. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member
4. Any amateur allowed to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency

Answer D. Any amateur licensed to transmit on the satellite's uplink frequency may be the control operator. Technicians can work most VHF/UHF satellites.

Who must designate the station control operator?

1. The station licensee
2. The FCC
3. The frequency coordinator
4. Any licensed operator

Answer A. The station licensee designates the control operator.

What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?

1. The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
2. The frequencies printed on the license grant
3. The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises
4. The class of operator license held by the control operator

Answer D. Transmitting privileges are set by the license class of the control operator, not by what is printed on the license or who else is present.

What is an amateur station’s control point?

1. The location of the station’s transmitting antenna
2. The location of the station’s transmitting apparatus
3. The location at which the control operator function is performed
4. The mailing address of the station licensee

Answer C. The control point is the location where the control operator function is performed. It can differ from where the transmitter or antenna is.

When, other than during an emergency, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?

1. At no time
2. When designated as the control operator by an Amateur Extra Class licensee
3. As part of a multi-operator contest team
4. When using a club station whose trustee holds an Amateur Extra Class license

Answer A. Outside an emergency, a Technician may never be the control operator on frequencies reserved for Amateur Extra licensees. Being designated by an Extra does not change this.

When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

1. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
2. Only the station licensee
3. Only the control operator
4. The control operator and the station licensee

Answer D. When someone other than the licensee is the control operator, both the control operator and the station licensee are responsible for proper operation.

Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

1. Repeater operation
2. Controlling a station over the internet
3. Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically
4. Using a computer or other device to identify automatically

Answer A. Repeater operation is the classic example of automatic control. The station works without the control operator at the control point.

Which amateur stations may be remotely controlled?

1. Only repeater stations
2. Only automatically controlled stations
3. Only digital stations
4. Any station

Answer D. Any amateur station may be remotely controlled (97.109(c)).

Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

1. A software defined radio (SDR)
2. Operating the station over the internet
3. Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio
4. Earth-Moon-Earth (EME) communication

Answer B. Operating your station from another location over the internet is remote control: the control operator is not at the station but controls it through a link.

What is a control operator as defined in Part 97?

1. The person speaking or otherwise communicating messages over an amateur station
2. The person who is the licensee of an amateur station
3. An amateur operator identified in the FCC database as responsible for transmissions and FCC rules compliance at a station license location
4. An amateur operator designated by the licensee of a station to be responsible for transmissions and FCC rules compliance at that station

Answer D. Part 97 defines a control operator as an amateur operator designated by the station licensee to be responsible for the station's transmissions and rule compliance.

When must the station licensee make the station and the station records available for inspection?

1. At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection
2. At any time upon request by an FCC representative
3. At any time after a written notification by the FCC of such inspection
4. Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent

Answer B. The station licensee must make the station and its records available for inspection at any time upon request by an FCC representative.

How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as “Race Headquarters”?

1. Never, the tactical call is sufficient
2. Once every hour
3. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication
4. At the end of every transmission

Answer C. Tactical call signs are fine, but you must still give your FCC call sign at least every 10 minutes during a communication and at the end of it.

When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?

1. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
2. At least once during each transmission
3. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication
4. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication

Answer D. Identify with your call sign at least every 10 minutes during a communication and at the end of it. Memory hook: 10 minutes and at the end.

What language must you use for identification when using a phone emission?

1. Any language recognized by the United Nations
2. Any language recognized by the ITU
3. English
4. English, French, or Spanish

Answer C. When identifying by voice, you must use English.

What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

1. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
2. Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission
3. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
4. Send the call sign using only a phone emission

Answer B. A phone station may identify by voice or by CW (Morse code). Many repeaters identify in CW.

Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?

1. KL7CC stroke W3
2. KL7CC slant W3
3. KL7CC slash W3
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. When adding an indicator such as a call district, you may say "stroke," "slant" or "slash." All are acceptable.

Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person speaks to a foreign amateur radio station via a station under the control of an FCC-licensed amateur radio operator?

1. The person must be a U.S. citizen
2. The foreign station must be in a country with which the U.S. has a third-party agreement
3. The licensed control operator must do the station identification
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A non-licensed person may talk to a foreign station only if the U.S. has a third-party agreement with that country. U.S. citizenship is not required.

What is the definition of third-party communications?

1. A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person
2. Amateur radio communications where three stations are in communications with one another
3. Operation when the transmitting equipment is licensed to a person other than the control operator
4. Temporary authorization for an unlicensed person to transmit on the amateur bands for technical experiments

Answer A. Third-party communication is a message from one control operator to another on behalf of another person, the third party.

What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

1. Beacon station
2. Remote control station
3. Repeater station
4. Message forwarding station

Answer C. A repeater station simultaneously retransmits another station's signal on a different channel or channels.

Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?

1. The control operator of the originating station
2. The control operator of the repeater
3. The owner of the repeater
4. Both the originating station and the repeater owner

Answer A. If a repeater inadvertently retransmits a rules violation, the control operator of the originating station is accountable, not the repeater operator.

Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

1. The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant
2. The club must have at least four members
3. The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League (ARRL)
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A club station license requires a club with at least four members. The trustee does not need an Extra license, and ARRL registration is not required.

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2-meter band?

1. Plus or minus 5 MHz
2. Plus or minus 600 kHz
3. Plus or minus 500 kHz
4. Plus or minus 1 MHz

Answer B. On 2 meters, repeaters usually listen 600 kHz above or below their output frequency. Memory hook: 2 meters, 600 kHz.

What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2-meter band?

1. 146.520 MHz
2. 145.000 MHz
3. 432.100 MHz
4. 446.000 MHz

Answer A. 146.520 MHz is the national FM simplex calling frequency on 2 meters. Listen there to find stations for direct contacts.

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70-centimeter band?

1. Plus or minus 5 MHz
2. Plus or minus 600 kHz
3. Plus or minus 500 kHz
4. Plus or minus 1 MHz

Answer A. On 70 centimeters, the standard repeater offset is 5 MHz. On 2 meters it is 600 kHz.

What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?

1. Say "break, break," then the other station’s call sign, followed by your call sign
2. Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign
3. Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign, followed by your call sign
4. Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer with your call sign

Answer B. On a repeater, say the other station's call sign, then identify with your own, for example "W1ABC, this is KF1XYZ." "Break break" is reserved for urgent traffic.

How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

1. Transmit "CQ" followed by the other station’s call sign
2. Transmit your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign
3. Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign
4. Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign

Answer C. When answering a CQ, give the calling station's call sign first, then yours. That tells them you are answering them.

What is an effective way to seek a call from any phone station when not using a repeater?

1. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call;” if there is no answer, change the frequency and repeat
2. Say “QTC,” followed by “this is” and your call sign; if there is no answer, change the frequency and repeat
3. Transmit an unmodulated carrier for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen; repeat as necessary
4. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” and your call sign, then pause to listen; repeat as necessary

Answer D. On simplex phone, call "CQ" a few times, say "this is" and your call sign, then pause and listen. Repeat as needed.

What does the term "repeater offset" mean?

1. The difference between a repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies
2. The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference
3. The approximately half-second delay to allow for the “squelch tail” to be removed
4. The fee charged by the repeater owner or club to provide for maintenance

Answer A. Repeater offset is the difference between the frequency a repeater transmits on (its output) and the one it listens on (its input).

What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?

1. A shortened form of the term “Contest QSO”
2. “Communication Quality,” used to indicate transmitted audio clarity
3. Only the called station should transmit
4. Calling any station

Answer D. CQ means "calling any station." It is a general call for anyone to answer.

Which of the following is a customary way to indicate a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

1. “CQ CQ” followed by the repeater’s call sign
2. The station’s call sign followed by the word “listening”
3. The repeater’s call sign followed by the station’s call sign
4. “QSY” followed by your call sign

Answer B. On a repeater, the customary way to show you are available is to give your call sign followed by "listening." Calling CQ on a repeater is unusual.

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

1. A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band
2. A list of operating schedules
3. A list of available net frequencies
4. A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage

Answer A. A band plan is a voluntary guideline for where different modes and activities happen within a band. It goes beyond what FCC rules require.

What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

1. Full duplex
2. Diplex
3. Simplex
4. Multiplex

Answer C. Simplex means transmitting and receiving on the same frequency, with no repeater in between.

What is the purpose of the reverse function on a VHF/UHF transceiver?

1. To reduce power output
2. To increase power output
3. To listen on a repeater’s input frequency
4. To listen on a repeater’s output frequency

Answer C. The reverse function lets you listen on a repeater's input frequency. It shows whether you can reach the other station directly on simplex.

What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

1. Carrier squelch
2. Tone burst
3. DTMF
4. CTCSS

Answer D. CTCSS (Continuous Tone-Coded Squelch System) sends a low, sub-audible tone with your voice. Many repeaters open only when they hear the right tone.

Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

1. A network of repeaters in which signals received by one repeater are transmitted by all the repeaters in the network
2. A single repeater with more than one receiver
3. Multiple repeaters with the same control operator
4. A system of repeaters linked by APRS

Answer A. In a linked repeater network, a signal received by one repeater is retransmitted by all the repeaters in the network.

Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

1. Improper transceiver offset
2. You are using the wrong CTCSS tone
3. You are using the wrong DCS code
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. If you can hear a repeater but cannot access it, the cause can be a wrong offset, a wrong CTCSS tone, or a wrong DCS code. All three are common.

Which of the following would cause your FM transmission audio to drop out on voice peaks?

1. Your repeater offset is inverted
2. Your FM deviation is too low
3. You are talking too loudly
4. Your transmit power is too high

Answer C. Talking too loudly over-deviates an FM signal, which can make audio distort or drop out on voice peaks. Speak at a normal level with the mic a few inches away.

What type of signaling to a repeater uses two simultaneous audio tones?

1. DTMF
2. CTCSS
3. GMRS
4. D-STAR

Answer A. DTMF (Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency) sends two simultaneous audio tones per key, like a telephone keypad. It is often used for repeater control.

How can you join a digital repeater’s “talkgroup”?

1. Register with the local Frequency Coordinator
2. Register with the digital repeater control operator
3. Program your radio with the group’s ID or code
4. Program your radio with the DTMF tone used by the talkgroup

Answer C. To join a DMR talkgroup, program your radio with the talkgroup's ID. Most hams do this in the radio's code plug.

Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

1. The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency
2. Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict
3. Whichever station was on the frequency first has preemptive rights to the frequency
4. Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency

Answer A. No one owns a frequency. When two stations interfere with each other, they should work it out (negotiate) courteously.

Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

1. So stations within range of each other can communicate without tying up a repeater
2. For contest operation
3. For working DX only
4. So stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset

Answer A. Simplex channels let nearby stations talk directly without tying up a repeater, which others may need.

Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

1. QRM
2. QRN
3. QTH
4. QSB

Answer A. QRM means interference from other stations (man-made). QRN is natural noise such as static.

Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?

1. QRU
2. QSY
3. QSL
4. QRZ

Answer B. QSY means changing frequency. For example: "Let's QSY to 146.55."

What is the digital color code used on DMR repeater systems?

1. An access code which must be programmed into a DMR transmitter to access a specific repeater
2. A code which automatically programs the repeater offset to a frequency chosen by the user
3. A code which identifies the specific CODEC being used so that the repeater can properly decode the audio
4. A code transmitted by the repeater to indicate health and status of the equipment

Answer A. A DMR color code is an access code that must match the repeater's code before your transmitter can use that repeater. It works somewhat like a CTCSS tone on an analog repeater.

What is the purpose of a squelch function?

1. Reduce a CW transmitter's key clicks
2. Mute the receiver audio when a signal is not present
3. Eliminate parasitic oscillations in an RF amplifier
4. Reduce interference from impulse noise

Answer B. Squelch mutes the receiver's audio when no signal is present, so you do not hear constant background noise.

Which of the following is a “talkgroup”?

1. A group of amateur radio operators who share email on a specific amateur radio topic
2. An identifier used by DMR to organize radio traffic so that those who want to hear the group aren’t bothered by other radio traffic
3. The members of a net organized for amateur radio operators with a specific common interest
4. A method of automatically alerting all group members to the frequency where any member is transmitting

Answer B. A DMR talkgroup is an identifier that organizes traffic, so you hear only the group you have selected and not all other activity.

When do the FCC Part 97 Amateur Radio Service rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

1. When operating under RACES rules
2. When operating under FEMA rules
3. When operating under ARES rules
4. FCC rules always apply

Answer D. FCC Part 97 rules always apply to amateur stations, including during RACES, ARES or FEMA-related operations.

Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?

1. Choose the regular net meeting time and frequency
2. Ensure that all stations checking into the net are properly licensed for operation on the net frequency
3. Call the net to order and direct communications between stations checking in
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. The Net Control Station calls the net to order and directs which stations transmit and when.

What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

1. Send the words by voice and Morse code
2. Use the Q-code “QSR” to ask the receiving station to repeat the words back
3. Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Spell unusual words using a standard phonetic alphabet (Alpha, Bravo, Charlie...) so they are received correctly.

What is RACES?

1. An emergency organization combining amateur radio and citizens band operators and frequencies
2. An international radio experimentation society
3. A radio contest held in a short period, sometimes called a “sprint”
4. An FCC Part 97 amateur radio service for civil defense communications during national emergencies

Answer D. RACES (Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service) is a Part 97 service for civil defense communications during emergencies.

What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?

1. Formal messages exchanged by net stations
2. The number of stations checking in and out of a net
3. Operation by mobile or portable stations
4. A count of the number of activations of the net each month

Answer A. In net operations, "traffic" means formal messages passed between stations.

What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

1. A group of licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service
2. A group of licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency
3. A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies
4. A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service

Answer A. ARES is a group of licensed amateurs who voluntarily register their qualifications and equipment for public-service communications. It is organized by the ARRL.

Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?

1. When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database
2. Record the time of each of your transmissions
3. Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. In a directed net, transmit only when net control directs you to, unless you have an emergency to report.

Which of the following relays messages using email addresses based on amateur callsigns?

1. Winlink
2. FT8
3. PSK31
4. AMTOR

Answer A. Winlink is a radio email system that uses addresses based on amateur call signs.

Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

1. No
2. Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
3. Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan
4. Yes, but only in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property

Answer D. In situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property, amateurs may use any means of radio communication, including frequencies outside their license privileges (97.403).

What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

1. The email address of the originating station
2. The address of the intended recipient
3. The telephone number of the addressee
4. Information needed to track the message

Answer D. The preamble of a formal message contains the information needed to track it, such as message number, precedence, station of origin, check, place and date.

What is meant by “check” in a radiogram header?

1. The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
2. The call sign of the originating station
3. A list of stations that have relayed the message
4. A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed

Answer A. In a radiogram, the "check" is the number of words (or word equivalents) in the message text. It lets the receiving station confirm nothing was lost.

Which of the following requires certification by a civil defense agency?

1. ARES
2. RACES
3. MARS
4. SKYWARN

Answer B. RACES is the one that requires certification by a civil defense agency (97.407). ARES is a volunteer ARRL program and SKYWARN is a National Weather Service spotter program.

Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?

1. The signal path encounters different concentrations of water vapor
2. VHF ionospheric propagation is very sensitive to path length
3. Multipath propagation cancels or reinforces signals
4. The Doppler effect causes slight frequency shifts which result in changes in signal strength

Answer C. At VHF, signals reflect off buildings, hills and vehicles. The direct and reflected waves can add up or cancel each other (multipath), so moving the antenna a few feet can change signal strength a lot.

How does vegetation affect UHF and microwave signals?

1. Causes knife-edge diffraction, distorting voice peaks
2. Absorbs signals, leading to poor reception of weak signals
3. Amplifies signals, improving reception of weak signals
4. Has no effect

Answer B. Leaves and trees contain water, which absorbs UHF and microwave energy. That weakens signals, so weak signals become hard to receive.

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

1. Right-hand circular
2. Left-hand circular
3. Horizontal
4. Vertical

Answer C. Long-distance CW and SSB (weak-signal) work on VHF/UHF normally uses horizontal polarization. FM and repeater work typically uses vertical.

What is the effect of antenna cross-polarization over a line-of-sight VHF or UHF path?

1. Modulation sidebands might become inverted
2. Received signal strength is reduced
3. Signals have an echo effect
4. Nothing significant will happen

Answer B. If one station's antenna is vertical and the other's is horizontal (cross-polarized), received signal strength drops significantly on a line-of-sight path.

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

1. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
2. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
3. Try the long path
4. Increase the antenna SWR

Answer B. If the direct path is blocked, aim a directional antenna at a building, hill or other surface that can reflect your signal toward the repeater.

What is the meaning of the term “picket fencing”?

1. Alternating transmissions during a net operation
2. Rapid flutter on mobile signals due to multipath propagation
3. A type of ground system used with vertical antennas
4. Interference from cable TV in the form of carriers at fixed intervals across the band

Answer B. Picket fencing is the rapid flutter heard on mobile VHF/UHF signals as the vehicle moves through multipath reflections.

What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?

1. High winds
2. Low barometric pressure
3. Precipitation
4. Colder temperatures

Answer C. Rain, snow and other precipitation absorb and scatter microwave signals, reducing range.

What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?

1. Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation
2. Interference from thunderstorms
3. Intermodulation distortion
4. Random combining of signals arriving via different paths

Answer D. Signals from the ionosphere often arrive by several paths at once. As the paths change, the signals combine randomly, sometimes reinforcing and sometimes cancelling, which causes irregular fading.

Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

1. Digital modes are unusable
2. Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception
3. FM voice is unusable
4. Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization

Answer B. The ionosphere changes a signal's polarization, typically into an elliptical pattern. That means either a vertical or a horizontal antenna can work for transmitting and receiving.

What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?

1. Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
2. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
3. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM
4. Error rates are likely to increase

Answer D. Multipath delivers the same data at slightly different times, which corrupts bits. Error rates are likely to increase.

Which region of the atmosphere can reflect HF radio waves?

1. The stratosphere
2. The troposphere
3. The ionosphere
4. The electrosphere

Answer C. The ionosphere, an electrically charged region of the upper atmosphere, can bend (refract) HF signals back to Earth. This makes long-distance HF contacts possible.

What effect does fog or rain have on 10-meter and 6-meter band signals?

1. Absorption
2. Little effect
3. Deflection
4. Increased range

Answer B. At 10 and 6 meters the wavelengths are long compared to raindrops, so fog and rain have little effect. Weather absorption matters mainly at microwave frequencies.

What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

1. They travel at different speeds
2. They are in parallel
3. They revolve in opposite directions
4. They are at right angles

Answer D. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are at right angles (perpendicular) to each other.

What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?

1. The orientation of the electric field
2. The orientation of the magnetic field
3. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field
4. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength

Answer A. Polarization is defined by the orientation of the electric field. A vertical antenna produces a vertically polarized wave.

What are the two components of a radio wave?

1. Impedance and reactance
2. Voltage and current
3. Electric and magnetic fields
4. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation

Answer C. A radio wave is made of an electric field and a magnetic field traveling together.

What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?

1. Speed of light
2. Speed of sound
3. 0.86 times the speed of light
4. 1.86 times the speed of sound

Answer A. In free space, radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000,000 meters per second.

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

1. Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases
2. Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases
3. Wavelength is constant at all frequencies
4. Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases

Answer B. Wavelength and frequency are inversely related: as frequency goes up, wavelength gets shorter.

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

1. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300
2. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
3. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
4. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz

Answer D. Wavelength in meters is about 300 divided by frequency in MHz. Example: 300 / 146 MHz is about 2 meters, which is why that band is called 2 meters.

In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?

1. The approximate wavelength in meters
2. Traditional letter/number designators
3. Channel numbers
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. Amateur bands are commonly named by their approximate wavelength in meters, such as 2 meters or 70 centimeters.

What frequency range is referred to as VHF?

1. 30 kHz to 300 kHz
2. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
3. 300 kHz to 3000 kHz
4. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz

Answer B. VHF (Very High Frequency) is 30 to 300 MHz.

What frequency range is referred to as UHF?

1. 30 to 300 kHz
2. 30 to 300 MHz
3. 300 to 3000 kHz
4. 300 to 3000 MHz

Answer D. UHF (Ultra High Frequency) is 300 to 3000 MHz.

What frequency range is referred to as HF?

1. 300 to 3000 MHz
2. 30 to 300 MHz
3. 3 to 30 MHz
4. 300 to 3000 kHz

Answer C. HF (High Frequency) is 3 to 30 MHz. Each range (HF, VHF, UHF) is ten times the one before it.

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?

1. 150,000,000 meters per second
2. 300,000,000 meters per second
3. 300,000,000 miles per hour
4. 150,000,000 miles per hour

Answer B. Radio waves travel at about 300,000,000 meters per second (3 x 10^8 m/s) in free space, the speed of light.

Which of these frequencies travels at the highest velocity in free space?

1. Microwaves
2. UHF
3. VHF
4. All radio frequencies travel at the same velocity

Answer D. All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed in free space, regardless of frequency.

Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?

1. They are too weak to go very far
2. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
3. UHF signals are usually not propagated by the ionosphere
4. UHF signals are absorbed by the ionospheric D region

Answer C. The ionosphere normally does not refract UHF signals back to Earth. Without that help, simplex UHF signals rarely reach beyond the radio horizon.

What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?

1. HF antennas are generally smaller
2. HF accommodates wider bandwidth signals
3. Long-distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF
4. There is less atmospheric interference (static) on HF

Answer C. HF signals are routinely refracted by the ionosphere, so long-distance (skip) contacts are far more common on HF than on VHF and higher.

What is one characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?

1. They are often received from 10,000 miles or more
2. They are distorted, with a characteristic raspy sound
3. They occur only during winter nighttime hours
4. They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west

Answer B. Signals reflected by the aurora are distorted and have a characteristic raspy or buzzing sound.

Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10-, 6-, and 2-meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?

1. Backscatter
2. Sporadic E
3. D region absorption
4. Gray-line propagation

Answer B. Sporadic E is caused by patches of dense ionization in the E region. It produces occasional strong signals from well beyond the horizon on 10, 6 and sometimes 2 meters.

Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

1. Knife-edge diffraction
2. Faraday rotation
3. Quantum tunneling
4. Doppler shift

Answer A. Knife-edge diffraction bends signals around a sharp edge, such as a ridge or building, letting them reach places behind an obstruction.

What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

1. Tropospheric ducting
2. D region refraction
3. F2 region refraction
4. Faraday rotation

Answer A. Tropospheric ducting traps VHF/UHF signals in layers of the lower atmosphere, regularly allowing contacts out to about 300 miles.

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

1. 33 centimeters
2. 6 meters
3. 2 meters
4. 70 centimeters

Answer B. Meteor trails briefly ionize the upper atmosphere. 6 meters is the band best suited to reflecting signals off them.

What causes tropospheric ducting?

1. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
2. Sunspots and solar flares
3. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
4. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere

Answer D. Temperature inversions, where warm air sits above cooler air, create the ducts that carry tropospheric signals.

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10-meter band propagation via the F region?

1. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity
2. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity
3. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity
4. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity

Answer A. Long-distance 10-meter F-region propagation is best during daylight (dawn to shortly after sunset) when sunspot activity is high.

Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere’s F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

1. 6 and 10 meters
2. 23 centimeters
3. 70 centimeters and 1.25 meters
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. Near the peak of the sunspot cycle, the F region can be ionized enough to carry 10-meter and even 6-meter signals over long distances.

Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?

1. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
2. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
3. The atmosphere refracts radio waves slightly
4. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles

Answer C. The atmosphere refracts (bends) radio waves slightly, so they follow Earth's curve a little. The radio horizon is therefore about 15 percent farther than the visual horizon.

Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50-watt output mobile FM transceiver?

1. 24.0 volts at 4 amperes
2. 13.8 volts at 4 amperes
3. 24.0 volts at 12 amperes
4. 13.8 volts at 12 amperes

Answer D. Mobile radios run on vehicle voltage, about 13.8 volts. A 50-watt transmitter draws roughly 10 amps or more on transmit, so a 13.8 V, 12 A supply is appropriate.

Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?

1. The frequency and power level at which the measurements will be made
2. The distance that the meter will be located from the antenna
3. The maximum SWR anticipated on the transmission line
4. The ability of the meter to compensate for a poor transmission line match to the antenna

Answer A. SWR meters are designed for specific frequency ranges and power levels. Choose one rated for the bands and power you will measure.

Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver’s DC power connection?

1. To minimize voltage drop when transmitting
2. To provide a close match to the power supply output impedance
3. To avoid RF interference
4. To minimize radiative losses in the power cable

Answer A. A transceiver draws high current on transmit. Short, heavy-gauge wire has less resistance, which minimizes voltage drop at the radio.

How are the audio input and output of a transceiver connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?

1. To a computer running a terminal program and connected to a terminal node controller unit
2. To the audio output and input of a computer running FT8 software
3. To an FT8 conversion unit, a keyboard, and a computer monitor
4. To a computer connected to the FT8converter.com website

Answer B. For FT8, the radio's audio output goes to the computer's audio input, and the computer's audio output goes to the radio's audio input. FT8 software on the computer does the decoding and encoding.

Where should an RF power meter be installed?

1. In the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
2. At the power supply output
3. In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
4. In the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio

Answer A. An RF power meter goes in the feed line between the transmitter and the antenna, where it can measure the RF power flowing to the antenna.

What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?

1. Receive and transmit mode, status, and location
2. Antenna and RF power
3. Receive audio, transmit audio, and transmitter keying
4. NMEA GPS location and DC power

Answer C. A computer-radio interface carries three things: receive audio to the computer, transmit audio to the radio, and a keying (PTT) signal to switch the radio to transmit.

Which of the following is one of the connections required between a computer and a transceiver to operate digital modes?

1. Computer “line out” to transceiver push-to-talk
2. Computer “line in” to transceiver push-to-talk
3. Computer “line in” to transceiver speaker connector
4. Computer “line out” to transceiver speaker connector

Answer C. The radio's speaker (receive audio) output connects to the computer's "line in" so the software can hear and decode signals.

Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?

1. Copper braid removed from coaxial cable
2. Copper-clad steel wire
3. Twisted-pair cable
4. Flat copper strap

Answer D. Flat copper strap has a large surface area and low inductance, making it the preferred conductor for RF bonding.

How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?

1. Divide the watt-hour rating of the battery by the peak power consumption of the equipment
2. Divide the battery ampere-hour rating by the average current draw of the equipment
3. Multiply the watts per hour consumed by the equipment by the battery power rating
4. Multiply the square of the current rating of the battery by the input resistance of the equipment

Answer B. Battery run time is about the ampere-hour rating divided by the equipment's average current draw. Example: a 20 Ah battery with a 2 A average draw runs about 10 hours.

What function does a digital mode hotspot perform for nearby transceivers?

1. Communication with a digital voice or data network
2. FT8 digital communications via AFSK using a smartphone connected to the internet
3. RTTY encoding and decoding without a computer
4. High-speed digital communications for meteor scatter

Answer A. A hotspot is a small device that connects nearby digital radios (DMR, D-STAR and similar) to a digital voice or data network, usually through the internet.

Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?

1. At the 12-volt battery chassis ground
2. To the shell of the power connector
3. To any metal part of the vehicle
4. Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket

Answer A. Connect a mobile radio's negative lead at the battery's chassis ground connection. This avoids noise and current problems from random metal grounds.

What is an electronic keyer?

1. A device for switching antennas from transmit to receive
2. A device for voice activated switching from receive to transmit
3. A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code
4. An interlock to prevent unauthorized use of a radio

Answer C. An electronic keyer helps you send Morse code by automatically forming evenly timed dots and dashes from a paddle.

What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?

1. Frequency instability
2. Distorted transmitted audio
3. Increased SWR
4. Sideband inversion

Answer B. Too much microphone gain over-drives an SSB transmitter and distorts the transmitted audio.

Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver’s operating frequency?

1. The keypad or VFO knob
2. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
3. The Automatic Frequency Control
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. You can set the operating frequency with the radio's keypad or by turning the VFO (tuning) knob.

How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?

1. Set the squelch threshold so that receiver output audio is on all the time
2. Turn up the audio level until it overcomes the squelch threshold
3. Turn on the anti-squelch function
4. Enable squelch enhancement

Answer A. To hear the weakest FM signals, open the squelch fully so the receiver audio is on all the time, even if you hear background noise.

What does an FM signal sound like when received slightly off frequency?

1. The audio increases in pitch
2. The audio decrease in pitch
3. There is no effect except for reduction in amplitude
4. The audio becomes distorted

Answer D. An FM signal received slightly off frequency sounds distorted.

What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?

1. Checks incoming signal deviation
2. Prevents interference to nearby repeaters
3. Tunes through a range of frequencies to check for activity
4. Tunes through a range of frequencies to determine the antenna’s resonant frequency

Answer C. Scanning tunes through a range of frequencies or memory channels, stopping when it finds activity.

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?

1. The AGC or limiter
2. The bandwidth selection
3. The tone squelch
4. The RIT or Clarifier

Answer D. RIT (Receiver Incremental Tuning), also called the clarifier, shifts only your receive frequency slightly to correct the pitch of an SSB signal.

What is a DMR “code plug”?

1. An adapter cable used to connect a DMR radio to a computer for internet access
2. Configuration data loaded onto your radio to access repeaters and talkgroups
3. An upgrade to DMR programming software provided by the radio manufacturer to accommodate new radio models
4. A Coder-Decoder (CODEC) that converts analog voice data to DMR digital data and vice versa

Answer B. A DMR code plug is the configuration data loaded into a radio, including frequencies, color codes, talkgroups and contacts, so it can access repeaters.

What is the advantage of having a choice of receiver filter bandwidths in a multimode transceiver?

1. Permits monitoring several modes simultaneously by selecting a separate filter for each mode
2. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
3. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
4. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

Answer B. Choosing a filter bandwidth that matches the mode (narrow for CW, wider for SSB) cuts out noise and interference outside the signal.

How is a specific group of stations selected on a DMR digital voice transceiver?

1. By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory
2. By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone
3. By entering the group’s identification code
4. By inserting a five-pin, pre-programmed code plug

Answer C. On DMR, you select a group of stations by entering the group's identification code (talkgroup ID).

Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?

1. 500 Hz
2. 1000 Hz
3. 2400 Hz
4. 5000 Hz

Answer C. SSB voice occupies about 2.4 to 3 kHz, so a 2400 Hz filter passes the signal while rejecting extra noise. Narrower filters cut off voice, and wider ones let in more noise.

Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

1. Your call sign
2. Your output power
3. The codec type being used
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. D-STAR transmits your call sign digitally with every transmission, so you must program your call sign into the radio before you transmit.

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

1. Volts
2. Watts
3. Ohms
4. Amperes

Answer D. Current is measured in amperes (amps).

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

1. Volts
2. Watts
3. Watt-hours
4. Amperes

Answer B. Power is measured in watts. Watt-hours measure energy (power over time).

What is the term for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

1. Voltage
2. Amperes per second
3. Volts per second
4. Current

Answer D. The flow of electrons in a circuit is called current.

What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?

1. Pulse rate
2. Wave number
3. Frequency
4. Wavelength

Answer C. The number of complete cycles per second is the frequency, measured in hertz.

A difference in which of the following causes electron flow?

1. Voltage
2. Ampere-hours
3. Capacitance
4. Inductance

Answer A. A difference in voltage (electrical potential) between two points pushes electrons to flow.

What is the unit of frequency?

1. Hertz
2. Henry
3. Farad
4. Epicycles per second

Answer A. Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz): one hertz is one cycle per second. The henry and the farad are units of inductance and capacitance.

Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?

1. They have relatively high density
2. They have many free electrons
3. They have many free protons
4. They have relatively high Young’s modulus values

Answer B. Metals have many free electrons that can move easily, which makes them good conductors.

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

1. Sea water
2. Glass
3. Stainless steel
4. Graphite

Answer B. Glass is a good insulator. Sea water, stainless steel and graphite all conduct electricity.

Which of the following describes alternating current?

1. Current that alternates between a positive direction and zero
2. Current that alternates between a negative direction and zero
3. Current that alternates between positive and negative directions
4. All these answers are correct

Answer C. Alternating current reverses direction, flowing first one way (positive) and then the other (negative).

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

1. Resistance
2. Current
3. Power
4. Voltage

Answer C. Power is the rate at which electrical energy is used.

What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?

1. Direct current
2. Alternating current
3. RF current
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Resistance opposes every kind of current flow: DC, AC and RF.

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

1. 0.0000015 milliamperes
2. 0.0015 milliamperes
3. 1500 milliamperes
4. 1,500,000 milliamperes

Answer C. 1 ampere = 1000 milliamperes, so 1.5 A = 1500 mA.

Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?

1. 1500 kHz
2. 1500 MHz
3. 15 GHz
4. 150 kHz

Answer A. 1 kHz = 1000 Hz, so 1,500,000 Hz / 1000 = 1500 kHz (also 1.5 MHz).

Which is equal to one kilovolt?

1. One one-thousandth of a volt
2. One hundred volts
3. One thousand volts
4. One million volts

Answer C. Kilo means one thousand, so one kilovolt is 1000 volts.

Which is equal to one microvolt?

1. One one-millionth of a volt
2. One million volts
3. One thousand kilovolts
4. One one-thousandth of a volt

Answer A. Micro means one-millionth, so a microvolt is 0.000001 volt.

Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?

1. 5 watts
2. 0.5 watts
3. 500,000 watts
4. 500,000,000 watts

Answer B. Milli means one-thousandth, so 500 milliwatts = 500 / 1000 = 0.5 watts.

Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?

1. 0.003 amperes
2. 0.3 amperes
3. 3,000,000 amperes
4. 3 amperes

Answer D. 3000 milliamperes / 1000 = 3 amperes.

Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?

1. 0.003525 kHz
2. 35.25 kHz
3. 3525 kHz
4. 3,525,000 kHz

Answer C. 1 MHz = 1000 kHz, so 3.525 MHz x 1000 = 3525 kHz.

Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

1. 0.001 microfarads
2. 1 microfarad
3. 1000 microfarads
4. 1,000,000,000 microfarads

Answer B. 1 microfarad = 1,000,000 picofarads.

Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

1. 2 dB
2. 3 dB
3. 5 dB
4. 10 dB

Answer B. Doubling power is an increase of about 3 dB. 5 W to 10 W is a doubling.

Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

1. -1 dB
2. -3 dB
3. -6 dB
4. -9 dB

Answer C. 12 W to 3 W is half and then half again. Each halving is about -3 dB, so the total is about -6 dB.

Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

1. 10 dB
2. 12 dB
3. 18 dB
4. 28 dB

Answer A. A tenfold power increase is 10 dB. 20 W to 200 W is ten times the power.

Which is equal to 28400 kHz?

1. 28.400 kHz
2. 2.800 MHz
3. 284.00 MHz
4. 28.400 MHz

Answer D. 28400 kHz / 1000 = 28.400 MHz.

Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

1. 0.002425 GHz
2. 24.25 GHz
3. 2.425 GHz
4. 242.5 GHz

Answer C. 2425 MHz / 1000 = 2.425 GHz.

What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?

1. Inductance
2. Resistance
3. Frequency
4. Capacitance

Answer D. Capacitance is the ability to store energy in an electric field. Inductance stores energy in a magnetic field.

What is the unit of capacitance?

1. Farad
2. Ohm
3. Volt
4. Henry

Answer A. Capacitance is measured in farads.

What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?

1. Admittance
2. Capacitance
3. Resistance
4. Inductance

Answer D. Inductance is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field.

What is the unit of inductance?

1. Coulomb
2. Farad
3. Henry
4. Ohm

Answer C. Inductance is measured in henrys.

What is the unit of impedance?

1. Volt
2. Ampere
3. Coulomb
4. Ohm

Answer D. Impedance, like resistance, is measured in ohms.

What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?

1. kHz
2. khz
3. KHz
4. KHZ

Answer A. The correct abbreviation is kHz: lowercase k for kilo and Hz for hertz.

What is the abbreviation for megahertz?

1. mHz
2. mHZ
3. Mhz
4. MHz

Answer D. The correct abbreviation is MHz: capital M for mega (lowercase m means milli) and Hz for hertz.

What formula is used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

1. P = I x E
2. P = E / I
3. P = I² x E
4. P = I / E

Answer A. Power equals current times voltage: P = I x E.

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

1. 138 watts
2. 0.7 watts
3. 23.8 watts
4. 3.8 watts

Answer A. P = I x E = 10 A x 13.8 V = 138 watts.

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?

1. 4.8 watts
2. 30 watts
3. 14.5 watts
4. 0.208 watts

Answer B. P = I x E = 2.5 A x 12 V = 30 watts.

How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?

1. 0.1 amperes
2. 10 amperes
3. 12 amperes
4. 132 amperes

Answer B. I = P / E = 120 W / 12 V = 10 amperes.

What is impedance?

1. The opposition to AC current flow
2. The inverse of resistance
3. The inverse of reactance
4. The power handling capability of a component

Answer A. Impedance is the total opposition to AC current flow, combining resistance and reactance.

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

1. I = E x R
2. I = E / R
3. I = E² x R
4. I = E² / R

Answer B. Ohm's Law for current: I = E / R (current equals voltage divided by resistance).

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

1. E = I x R
2. E = I / R
3. E = I² x R
4. E = I² / R

Answer A. Ohm's Law for voltage: E = I x R.

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

1. R = E x I
2. R = E / I
3. R = E + I
4. R = E - I

Answer B. Ohm's Law for resistance: R = E / I.

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?

1. 3 ohms
2. 30 ohms
3. 1/30 ohm
4. 270 ohms

Answer B. R = E / I = 90 V / 3 A = 30 ohms.

What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

1. 18 ohms
2. 0.125 ohms
3. 8 ohms
4. 13.5 ohms

Answer C. R = E / I = 12 V / 1.5 A = 8 ohms.

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

1. 3 ohms
2. 16 ohms
3. 48 ohms
4. 8 ohms

Answer A. R = E / I = 12 V / 4 A = 3 ohms.

What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

1. 9600 amperes
2. 200 amperes
3. 0.667 amperes
4. 1.5 amperes

Answer D. I = E / R = 120 V / 80 ohms = 1.5 amperes.

What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

1. 20,000 amperes
2. 0.5 amperes
3. 2 amperes
4. 100 amperes

Answer C. I = E / R = 200 V / 100 ohms = 2 amperes.

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

1. 2400 amperes
2. 0.1 amperes
3. 10 amperes
4. 5760 amperes

Answer C. I = E / R = 240 V / 24 ohms = 10 amperes.

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

1. 1 volt
2. 0.25 volts
3. 2.5 volts
4. 1.5 volts

Answer A. E = I x R = 0.5 A x 2 ohms = 1 volt.

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

1. 1 volt
2. 10 volts
3. 11 volts
4. 9 volts

Answer B. E = I x R = 1 A x 10 ohms = 10 volts.

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

1. 8 volts
2. 0.2 volts
3. 12 volts
4. 20 volts

Answer D. E = I x R = 2 A x 10 ohms = 20 volts.

In which type of circuit is the current always the same through all components?

1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Resonant
4. Branch

Answer A. In a series circuit there is only one path, so the same current flows through every component.

In which type of circuit is the voltage always the same across all components?

1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Resonant
4. Branch

Answer B. In a parallel circuit every component is connected across the same two points, so each has the same voltage.

What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

1. Inductor
2. Resistor
3. Inverter
4. Transformer

Answer B. A resistor opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit.

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

1. Fixed resistor
2. Power resistor
3. Potentiometer
4. Transformer

Answer C. A potentiometer (a variable resistor) is the classic volume control.

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

1. Inductance
2. Resistance
3. Capacitance
4. Field strength

Answer B. A potentiometer controls resistance. Turning the shaft moves a contact along a resistive element.

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

1. Resistor
2. Capacitor
3. Inductor
4. Diode

Answer B. A capacitor stores energy in an electric field between its plates.

What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

1. Resistor
2. Potentiometer
3. Oscillator
4. Capacitor

Answer D. A capacitor is made of conductive surfaces (plates) separated by an insulator, called the dielectric.

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

1. Resistor
2. Capacitor
3. Inductor
4. Diode

Answer C. An inductor stores energy in a magnetic field.

What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?

1. Transistor
2. Capacitor
3. Diode
4. Inductor

Answer D. An inductor is typically a coil of wire, sometimes wound on a core.

What is the function of an SPDT switch?

1. A single circuit is opened or closed
2. Two circuits are opened or closed
3. A single circuit is switched between one of two other circuits
4. Two circuits are each switched between one of two other circuits

Answer C. SPDT means single-pole, double-throw: one circuit (pole) can be connected to either of two other circuits (throws).

What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

1. Single-pole single-throw
2. Single-pole double-throw
3. Double-pole single-throw
4. Double-pole double-throw

Answer A. In figure T-2, component 3 is a simple on/off switch with one pole and one throw: single-pole, single-throw (SPST).

Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?

1. Nickel-metal hydride
2. Lithium-ion
3. Lead-acid
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. NiMH, lithium-ion and lead-acid batteries can all be recharged.

Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?

1. Nickel-cadmium
2. Carbon-zinc
3. Lead-acid
4. Lithium-ion

Answer B. Carbon-zinc cells (common inexpensive dry cells) are not rechargeable.

Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

1. It is lower in some diode types than in others
2. It is proportional to peak inverse voltage
3. It indicates that the diode is defective
4. It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load

Answer A. Forward voltage drop differs by diode type. Schottky diodes, for example, drop less voltage than standard silicon diodes.

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?

1. Resistor
2. Fuse
3. Diode
4. Driven element

Answer C. A diode lets current flow in only one direction.

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?

1. Varistor
2. Potentiometer
3. Transistor
4. Thermistor

Answer C. A transistor can act as an electronic switch, turning current on and off with a small control signal.

Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?

1. Alternator
2. Transistor
3. Triode
4. Pentode

Answer B. A bipolar transistor is built from three regions of semiconductor material (NPN or PNP).

What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?

1. Varistor
2. Field-effect
3. Hall-effect
4. Bipolar junction

Answer B. A field-effect transistor (FET) has a gate, drain and source. A bipolar transistor has a base, collector and emitter.

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

1. With the word "cathode"
2. With a stripe
3. With the letter C
4. With the letter K

Answer B. The cathode end of a diode is usually marked with a stripe or band on the package.

What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?

1. Forward current
2. Reverse current
3. Capacitively-coupled RF signal
4. Inductively-coupled RF signal

Answer A. An LED gives off light when forward current flows through it.

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

1. Frequency Emission Transmitter
2. Fast Electron Transistor
3. Free Electron Transmitter
4. Field Effect Transistor

Answer D. FET stands for Field Effect Transistor.

What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?

1. Plus and minus
2. Source and drain
3. Anode and cathode
4. Gate and base

Answer C. A diode's two electrodes are the anode and the cathode.

Which of the following can provide power gain?

1. Transformer
2. Transistor
3. Reactor
4. Resistor

Answer B. A transistor can amplify, giving more power out than the signal power put in. Transformers and resistors cannot provide power gain.

What does the term gain mean in amplifiers?

1. The output signal voltage relative to the input signal voltage
2. The output signal current relative to the input signal current
3. The output signal power relative to the input signal power
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Gain can describe voltage, current or power: any ratio of output to input.

What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?

1. Signal, bias, power
2. Emitter, base, collector
3. Input, output, supply
4. Pole one, pole two, output

Answer B. A bipolar junction transistor has an emitter, base and collector.

What is an electrical diagram using standard component symbols called?

1. Connection chart
2. Instrumentation system
3. Schematic
4. Flow chart

Answer C. A diagram drawn with standard component symbols is called a schematic.

What is component 1 in figure T-1?

1. Resistor
2. Transistor
3. Battery
4. Connector

Answer A. Component 1 in figure T-1 is the zigzag symbol, a resistor.

What is component 2 in figure T-1?

1. Resistor
2. Transistor
3. Indicator lamp
4. Connector

Answer B. Component 2 in figure T-1 is a transistor: a circle with base, collector and an emitter arrow.

What is component 3 in figure T-1?

1. Resistor
2. Transistor
3. Lamp
4. Ground symbol

Answer C. Component 3 in figure T-1 is the symbol for a lamp (indicator light).

What is component 4 in figure T-1?

1. Resistor
2. Transistor
3. Ground symbol
4. Battery

Answer D. Component 4 in figure T-1 shows alternating long and short lines, the symbol for a battery.

What is component 6 in figure T-2?

1. Resistor
2. Capacitor
3. Regulator IC
4. Transistor

Answer B. Component 6 in figure T-2 is a capacitor: two plates, one of them curved.

What is component 8 in figure T-2?

1. Resistor
2. Inductor
3. Regulator IC
4. Light emitting diode

Answer D. Component 8 in figure T-2 is a diode symbol with arrows pointing outward: a light-emitting diode (LED).

What is component 9 in figure T-2?

1. Variable capacitor
2. Variable inductor
3. Variable resistor
4. Variable transformer

Answer C. Component 9 in figure T-2 is a resistor symbol with an arrow: a variable resistor.

What is component 4 in figure T-2?

1. Variable inductor
2. Double-pole switch
3. Potentiometer
4. Transformer

Answer D. Component 4 in figure T-2 is two coils with core lines between them: a transformer.

What is component 3 in figure T-3?

1. Connector
2. Meter
3. Variable capacitor
4. Variable inductor

Answer D. Component 3 in figure T-3 is a coil with an arrow (tap): a variable inductor.

What is component 4 in figure T-3?

1. Antenna
2. Transmitter
3. Dummy load
4. Ground

Answer A. Component 4 in figure T-3 is the antenna symbol.

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

1. Wire lengths
2. Physical appearance of components
3. Component connections
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. A schematic accurately shows how components are connected. It does not show wire lengths or what parts look like.

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?

1. Transformer
2. Rectifier
3. Amplifier
4. Reflector

Answer B. A rectifier converts AC into a varying (pulsating) DC signal, usually using diodes.

What is a relay?

1. An electrically-controlled switch
2. A current-controlled amplifier
3. An inverting amplifier
4. A pass transistor

Answer A. A relay is a switch operated by an electrical signal, usually through an electromagnet.

Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?

1. To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
2. To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
3. To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire
4. To reduce receiver overload

Answer C. Shielded wire prevents unwanted signals from coupling into or out of the wire.

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

1. Potentiometer
2. Transistor
3. Meter
4. Relay

Answer C. A meter displays an electrical quantity, such as voltage or current, as a value.

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

1. Regulator
2. Oscillator
3. Filter
4. Phase inverter

Answer A. A regulator controls (holds steady) the voltage from a power supply.

What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?

1. Variable capacitor
2. Transformer
3. Transistor
4. Diode

Answer B. A transformer steps 120 V AC down (or up) to a different AC voltage.

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

1. LED
2. FET
3. Zener diode
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. LEDs are widely used as visual indicators, such as power and transmit lights.

Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?

1. Resistor
2. Zener diode
3. Potentiometer
4. Capacitor

Answer D. An inductor and a capacitor together form a resonant (tuned) circuit.

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

1. Transducer
2. Multi-pole relay
3. Integrated circuit
4. Transformer

Answer C. An integrated circuit (IC) combines many semiconductors and other components into one package.

What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?

1. Give off light when current flows through it
2. Supply electrical energy
3. Control the flow of current
4. Convert electrical energy into radio waves

Answer C. Component 2 in figure T-1 is a transistor. Its job is to control the flow of current, here switching the lamp on and off.

Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

1. An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel
2. A linear voltage regulator
3. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
4. A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio

Answer A. An inductor and capacitor connected in series or parallel form a resonant (tuned) circuit.

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

1. RF gain
2. Sensitivity
3. Selectivity
4. Total Harmonic Distortion

Answer B. Sensitivity is a receiver's ability to detect weak signals.

What is a transceiver?

1. A device that combines a receiver and transmitter
2. A device for matching feed line impedance to 50 ohms
3. A device for automatically sending and decoding Morse code
4. A device for converting receiver and transmitter frequencies to another band

Answer A. A transceiver combines a transmitter and a receiver in one unit.

Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?

1. Phase splitter
2. Mixer
3. Inverter
4. Amplifier

Answer B. A mixer combines signals to convert a signal from one frequency to another.

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

1. Discrimination ratio
2. Sensitivity
3. Selectivity
4. Harmonic distortion

Answer C. Selectivity is a receiver's ability to separate a desired signal from nearby signals. Sensitivity is about detecting weak signals.

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?

1. Reactance modulator
2. Phase modulator
3. Low-pass filter
4. Oscillator

Answer D. An oscillator generates a signal at a specific frequency.

What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?

1. High-pass filter
2. Low-pass filter
3. Transverter
4. Phase converter

Answer C. A transverter converts a transceiver's RF input and output to another band, for example letting an HF radio work on a microwave band.

What is the function of a transceiver’s PTT input?

1. Input for a key used to send CW
2. Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded
3. Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded
4. Input for a preamplifier tuning tone

Answer B. PTT (push-to-talk) switches the radio from receive to transmit when the line is grounded, for example by pressing the mic button.

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

1. Impedance matching
2. Oscillation
3. Modulation
4. Low-pass filtering

Answer C. Modulation is combining information, such as speech, with an RF carrier.

What is the function of the switch which selects either SSB or CW-FM on some VHF power amplifiers?

1. Change the mode of the transmitted signal
2. Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode
3. Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper segment of the band
4. Reduce the received signal noise

Answer B. The SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF amplifier sets the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode. SSB needs linear amplification, while FM and CW can use a more efficient non-linear setting.

What can be added to the output of a transceiver to increase the transmitted output power?

1. A potentiometer
2. An RF power amplifier
3. An impedance multiplier
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. An RF power amplifier added after the transceiver increases the transmitted power.

What is the function of the Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) circuit in a transceiver?

1. Set the receive and transmit frequency
2. Provide automatic frequency control
3. Inject a variable frequency to allow CW reception
4. Generate and demodulate single sideband signals

Answer A. The VFO (Variable Frequency Oscillator) sets the receive and transmit frequency.

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

1. Talk louder into the microphone
2. Let the transceiver cool off
3. Change to a higher power level
4. Talk farther away from the microphone

Answer D. Over-deviation means your audio is too strong. Talk farther from the microphone, or more quietly.

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

1. The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band
2. The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high
3. The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded
4. The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low

Answer A. Strong nearby signals can overload broadcast receivers that cannot reject signals outside their band (fundamental overload).

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

1. Fundamental overload
2. Harmonics
3. Spurious emissions
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Fundamental overload, harmonics and spurious emissions can all cause RF interference.

Which of the following might be the cause of low RF power output from a solid-state transceiver?

1. Poor amplifier noise figure
2. Poor amplifier linearity
3. Low SWR
4. High SWR

Answer D. High SWR causes many solid-state transmitters to reduce power automatically to protect their output transistors.

Which of the following might reduce interference by an amateur station to a non-amateur over-the-air radio receiver?

1. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
2. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter
3. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
4. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode

Answer A. When a nearby receiver is overloaded by your strong signal, a filter at the affected receiver's antenna input can block the amateur signal.

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

1. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
2. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
3. Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. First check that your station works properly and does not interfere with your own radio or TV on the same channel. That helps show whether the problem is your station or the neighbor's equipment.

Which of the following can reduce interference to a 2-meter band transceiver from a nearby commercial FM station?

1. Installing an RF preamplifier
2. Using double-shielded coaxial cable
3. Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable
4. Installing a band-reject filter

Answer D. A band-reject (notch) filter can block a strong commercial FM broadcast signal that is overloading your 2-meter receiver.

What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

1. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
2. Politely inform your neighbor that FCC rules prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
3. Make sure your station meets the standards of good amateur practice
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. All three apply: work with your neighbor to find the device, politely explain the FCC rules, and make sure your own station follows good practice.

What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?

1. Add a low-pass filter to the TV antenna input
2. Add a high-pass filter to the TV antenna input
3. Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input
4. Be sure all TV feed line coaxial connectors are installed properly

Answer D. Loose or poorly installed coax connectors are a common entry point for interference. Check them before adding filters.

What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

1. Your transmitter is slightly off frequency
2. You are speaking too loudly or too close to the microphone
3. You are in a bad location
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Distorted audio through a repeater can come from being off frequency, talking too loudly or too close to the mic, or a poor location. All are possible.

Which of the following can eliminate distorted voice transmissions?

1. Adding extra feedline to the antenna to lower SWR
2. Turning the radio on and off to reset the computer-controlled circuitry
3. Adding a clip-on ferrite “choke” to the microphone cable to prevent the transmitted signal from feeding back into the transmitter
4. Turning the squelch control fully clockwise to prevent the transmitted signal from triggering the squelch circuit

Answer C. RF can travel back down the microphone cable and distort audio. A clip-on ferrite choke on the mic cable blocks that RF feedback.

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

1. To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests
2. To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter
3. To improve the efficiency of an antenna
4. To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver

Answer A. A dummy load absorbs your transmitter's power so you can run tests without sending a signal over the air.

Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

1. A VTVM
2. An antenna analyzer
3. A Q meter
4. A frequency counter

Answer B. An antenna analyzer shows whether an antenna is resonant (lowest SWR) at the desired frequency.

What does a typical RF dummy load consist of?

1. A low-voltage power supply and an AC relay
2. A 50-ohm non-inductive resistor mounted on a heat sink
3. A low-voltage power supply and a DC relay
4. A 50-ohm inductive reactance mounted in a shielded enclosure

Answer B. A dummy load is typically a 50-ohm non-inductive resistor on a heat sink, matching the transmitter's 50-ohm output.

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

1. 50:50
2. Zero
3. 1:1
4. Full Scale

Answer C. An SWR of 1:1 means a perfect impedance match.

Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?

1. To protect the RF output amplifier transistors
2. To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity
3. Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR
4. To lower the SWR on the transmission line

Answer A. High SWR reflects power back toward the transmitter. Solid-state radios reduce output to protect their RF output transistors.

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

1. Loss of -4 dB
2. Good impedance match
3. Gain of +4 dB
4. Impedance mismatch

Answer D. An SWR of 4:1 indicates a significant impedance mismatch. Most radios want SWR below about 2:1.

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

1. It increases the SWR
2. It is radiated as harmonics
3. It is converted into heat
4. It distorts the signal

Answer C. Power lost in a feed line is converted into heat.

Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

1. Voltmeter
2. Ohmmeter
3. Iambic pentameter
4. Directional wattmeter

Answer D. A directional wattmeter measures forward and reflected power, from which SWR is determined.

Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?

1. Moisture contamination
2. Solder flux contamination
3. Rapid fluctuation in transmitter output power
4. Operation at 100% duty cycle for an extended period

Answer A. Moisture getting into coax is a major cause of cable failure and loss.

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

1. Ultraviolet light can increase the resistance of the conductors
2. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket
3. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix, causing interference
4. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

Answer D. Sunlight (UV) degrades the jacket, causing cracks that let water into the cable.

What is an advantage of foam-dielectric versus solid-dielectric coaxial cable?

1. It is more resistant to moisture contamination
2. It has higher voltage breakdown
3. It has less loss per foot
4. It has a better impedance match to 50 ohms

Answer C. Foam dielectric coax has less loss per foot than solid dielectric coax.

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?

1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A potentiometer
4. An ohmmeter

Answer B. A voltmeter measures electric potential (voltage).

How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?

1. In series
2. In parallel
3. In quadrature
4. In phase

Answer B. Connect a voltmeter in parallel (across) the component to measure the voltage applied to it.

When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?

1. In series
2. In parallel
3. In quadrature
4. In phase

Answer A. To measure current, the meter must be in series, so the current flows through the meter.

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

1. An ohmmeter
2. An electrometer
3. A voltmeter
4. An ammeter

Answer D. An ammeter measures current.

How does an ohmmeter measure the resistance of a circuit or component?

1. By applying a small current and measuring the resulting voltage
2. By placing a variable resistor in parallel with the circuit
3. By placing a variable resistor in series with the circuit
4. By applying a variable voltage and measuring the resulting current change

Answer A. An ohmmeter applies a small current and measures the resulting voltage, then calculates resistance (R = E / I).

Which of the following can damage a multimeter?

1. Attempting to measure resistance using the voltage setting
2. Failing to connect one of the probes to ground
3. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting
4. Not allowing it to warm up properly

Answer C. Measuring voltage while the meter is set to resistance can damage it, because the ohms circuit is not designed for external voltage.

Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?

1. Signal strength and noise
2. Impedance and reactance
3. Voltage and resistance
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. A multimeter measures voltage, resistance and usually current.

Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?

1. Acid-core solder
2. Lead-tin solder
3. Rosin-core solder
4. Tin-copper solder

Answer A. Acid-core solder is for plumbing. The acid corrodes electronic parts, so use rosin-core solder for electronics.

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?

1. Dark black spots
2. A bright or shiny surface
3. A rough or lumpy surface
4. A greenish tinge

Answer C. A cold tin-lead solder joint looks rough, lumpy or dull. A good joint is smooth and shiny.

What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?

1. Increasing resistance with time
2. Decreasing resistance with time
3. Steady full-scale reading
4. Alternating between open and short circuit

Answer A. An ohmmeter's current slowly charges a large discharged capacitor. The reading starts low and rises as the capacitor charges: increasing resistance with time.

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

1. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
2. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
3. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
4. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency

Answer B. Always remove power before measuring resistance in a circuit. External voltage gives false readings and can damage the meter.

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

1. Spread spectrum
2. Packet radio
3. Single sideband
4. Phase shift keying (PSK)

Answer C. Single sideband (SSB) is a form of amplitude modulation: it is AM with the carrier and one sideband removed.

What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

1. FM or PM
2. SSB
3. AM
4. PSK

Answer A. VHF packet radio is usually sent using FM or PM (phase modulation) transceivers.

Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

1. FM
2. DRM
3. SSB
4. PM

Answer C. SSB is narrow and efficient, so it is the voice mode of choice for long-distance (weak-signal) VHF/UHF work.

Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

1. AM
2. SSB
3. PSK
4. FM or PM

Answer D. VHF and UHF voice repeaters commonly use FM or PM.

Which of the following signal types has the narrowest bandwidth?

1. FM voice
2. SSB voice
3. CW
4. Slow-scan TV

Answer C. CW (Morse code) has the narrowest bandwidth, around 150 Hz, far narrower than any voice mode.

Which sideband is normally used for 10-meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

1. Upper sideband
2. Lower sideband
3. Suppressed sideband
4. Inverted sideband

Answer A. By convention, upper sideband (USB) is used on 10 meters, VHF and UHF. Lower sideband is the convention below 10 MHz.

What is one characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?

1. SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly
2. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
3. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
4. SSB signals are less susceptible to high SWR

Answer C. An SSB signal is about 3 kHz wide, much narrower than an FM voice signal (10 to 15 kHz).

What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

1. 1 kHz
2. 3 kHz
3. 6 kHz
4. 15 kHz

Answer B. A typical SSB voice signal is about 3 kHz wide.

What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM voice signal on VHF repeaters?

1. Less than 500 Hz
2. About 150 kHz
3. Between 10 and 15 kHz
4. Between 50 and 125 kHz

Answer C. An FM voice signal on VHF repeaters is roughly 10 to 15 kHz wide.

What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?

1. More than 10 MHz
2. About 6 MHz
3. About 3 MHz
4. About 1 MHz

Answer B. AM fast-scan TV, like old analog broadcast TV, takes about 6 MHz of bandwidth.

What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

1. 2.4 kHz
2. 150 Hz
3. 1000 Hz
4. 15 kHz

Answer B. A CW signal needs only about 150 Hz of bandwidth.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?

1. Voice quality is poorer
2. Only one signal can be received at a time
3. FM signals are harder to tune
4. FM signals are more susceptible to high SWR

Answer B. FM receivers lock onto the strongest signal (capture effect), so only one signal can be heard at a time. With SSB you can hear several signals at once.

What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

1. The signal strength of received signals
2. Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second
3. Health and status of the satellite
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Satellite beacons typically send telemetry on the satellite's health and status, such as battery voltage and temperatures.

What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

1. Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode
2. Blocking access by other users
3. Overloading the satellite batteries
4. Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer

Answer B. Satellite transponders are shared. Too much uplink power hogs the transponder and blocks access for other users.

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

1. Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over Earth
2. The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
3. The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Tracking programs provide all of these: real-time maps, pass times with azimuth and elevation, and Doppler-corrected frequencies.

What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

1. SSB
2. FM
3. CW/data
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Amateur satellites use SSB, FM and CW/data, depending on the satellite.

What is a satellite beacon?

1. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite
2. An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna
3. A reflective surface on the satellite
4. A transmission from a satellite that contains status information

Answer D. A satellite beacon is a transmission from the satellite that carries status (telemetry) information.

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

1. The satellite transmitted power
2. The Keplerian elements
3. The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. Tracking programs need the satellite's Keplerian elements, the orbital parameters that describe its path.

What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?

1. A change in the satellite orbit
2. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another
3. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and Earth station
4. A special digital communications mode for some satellites

Answer C. Doppler shift is the apparent change in frequency caused by motion between the satellite and your station. The frequency rises as it approaches and falls as it moves away.

What does it mean if a satellite is operating in U/V mode?

1. The satellite uplink is in the 15-meter band and the downlink is in the 10-meter band
2. The satellite uplink is in the 70-centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2-meter band
3. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
4. The satellite frequencies are usually variable

Answer B. U/V mode means the uplink is on UHF (70 cm) and the downlink is on VHF (2 m).

What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

1. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun
2. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
3. Doppler shift of the received signal
4. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band

Answer B. Spin fading is a regular fading caused by the satellite and its antennas rotating.

What does the term LEO mean in reference to communication satellites?

1. Low Energy Orbit, which conserves battery power
2. Low Elevation Orbit, which appears close to the horizon from the earth station
3. Low Equilibrium Orbit, which has a slightly unstable period
4. Low Earth Orbit, which has a period of around 100 minutes

Answer D. LEO means Low Earth Orbit. These satellites circle Earth in roughly 100 minutes.

Who is permitted to receive telemetry from an amateur radio satellite?

1. Anyone
2. Only the satellite control operator
3. Only the control operator or a licensed radio amateur who has received the encryption key from the control operator
4. Only a licensed radio amateur who has received the encryption key from AMSAT

Answer A. Amateur satellite telemetry may not be encrypted, so anyone can receive it.

Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power into a linear transponder satellite is neither too low nor too high?

1. Check your signal strength report in the telemetry data
2. Listen for distortion on your downlink signal
3. Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon
4. Compare your signal to others on the downlink using an internet SDR receiver

Answer C. On a linear transponder, adjust your uplink power so your downlink signal is about the same strength as the satellite's beacon.

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

1. Echolocation
2. Doppler radar
3. Radio direction finding
4. Phase locking

Answer C. Radio direction finding is used to locate sources of interference, jamming, or hidden transmitters.

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

1. Calibrated SWR meter
2. A directional antenna
3. A directional wattmeter
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A directional antenna lets you find the direction of the strongest signal. It is the key tool in a transmitter hunt ("fox hunt").

What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

1. Simulated emergency exercises
2. Net operations
3. Hidden transmitter hunts
4. Contesting

Answer D. Contesting means contacting as many stations as possible within a set time period.

Which of the following is good practice when contacting another station in a contest?

1. Signing only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling
2. Contacting the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
3. Sending only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange
4. Adding “Please copy” before your exchange

Answer C. In a contest, send only what is needed: proper identification and the contest exchange. Keep it short for everyone.

What is a grid locator?

1. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
2. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
3. An instrument for locating faults in power amplifiers
4. An instrument for radio direction finding

Answer A. A grid locator (Maidenhead grid square) is a letter-number code for a geographic location, such as FN31.

How is over the air access to Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP) nodes accomplished?

1. By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node
2. By using Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF) signals
3. By entering the proper internet password
4. By using Continuous Tone-Coded Squelch System (CTCSS) tone codes

Answer B. IRLP nodes are accessed over the air using DTMF tones from your radio's keypad.

What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

1. A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the internet to another station
2. A technique employed to “spot” DX stations via the internet
3. A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the internet
4. A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques

Answer D. VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) delivers voice over the internet using digital techniques.

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

1. A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet
2. A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio
3. A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
4. A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet

Answer A. IRLP (Internet Radio Linking Project) connects amateur systems such as repeaters through the internet.

Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?

1. IRLP
2. D-STAR
3. DMR
4. EchoLink

Answer D. EchoLink lets you connect to a linked repeater from a computer or smartphone, without using a radio.

What is required before using the EchoLink system?

1. Complete the required EchoLink training
2. Purchase a license to use the EchoLink software
3. Register your call sign and provide proof of license
4. At least a General Class license

Answer C. Before using EchoLink, you must register your call sign and provide proof of your license.

What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?

1. A gateway
2. A repeater
3. A digipeater
4. A beacon

Answer A. A gateway is an amateur station that connects other amateur stations to the internet.

Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

1. Packet radio
2. IEEE 802.11
3. FT8
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Packet radio, IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi based mesh) and FT8 are all digital communication modes.

What is FT8?

1. A wideband FM voice mode
2. A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation
3. An eight-channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters
4. A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation

Answer B. FT8 is a digital mode designed for contacts with very weak signals, often below the noise.

What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?

1. GPS position data
2. Text messages
3. Weather data
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System) can carry GPS position, text messages and weather data.

What is meant by the term "NTSC?"

1. A digital transmission standard for encrypting data
2. A special mode for satellite uplink
3. An analog fast-scan color TV signal
4. A frame compression scheme for TV signals

Answer C. NTSC is the analog fast-scan color TV standard formerly used for U.S. broadcast television.

Which of the following is an application of APRS?

1. Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
2. Automatically showing the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval
3. Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters
4. Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater

Answer A. APRS provides real-time tactical digital communications, often shown on a map with station locations.

What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

1. Pulse Shift Keying
2. Phase Shift Keying
3. Packet Sampled Keying
4. Power Sampled Keying

Answer B. PSK stands for Phase Shift Keying, as in PSK31.

Which of the following describes DMR?

1. A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel
2. An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters
3. An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle
4. A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction

Answer A. DMR (Digital Mobile Radio) time-multiplexes two digital voice signals (two time slots) on one 12.5 kHz repeater channel.

Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?

1. A checksum that permits error detection
2. A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
3. Automatic repeat request in case of error
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Packet radio includes a header with call signs, a checksum for error detection, and automatic repeat request (ARQ) when errors occur.

What is CW?

1. A type of electromagnetic propagation
2. A digital mode used primarily on 2-meter FM
3. Error correction for digital transmission using code words
4. Another name for a Morse code transmission

Answer D. CW (continuous wave) is another name for Morse code transmission.

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?

1. Earth-Moon-Earth
2. Weak signal propagation beacons
3. Meteor scatter
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. WSJT-X supports Earth-Moon-Earth (moonbounce), weak-signal beacons and meteor scatter, among other activities.

What is the role of ARQ in a transmission system?

1. A special transmission format limited to video signals
2. A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
3. An error correction method in which the receiving station detects errors and sends a request for retransmission
4. A method of compressing data using autonomous reiterative Q codes prior to final encoding

Answer C. ARQ (Automatic Repeat reQuest) is error correction in which the receiving station detects an error and asks for the data to be sent again.

Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?

1. An amateur-radio data network using commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware
2. A wide-bandwidth digital voice mode employing DMR protocols
3. An amateur-radio satellite communications network using modified commercial satellite TV hardware
4. An internet linking protocol allowing communication through repeaters around the world

Answer A. An amateur mesh network (such as Broadband-Hamnet) uses commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware to build a data network.

What is a beam antenna?

1. An antenna built from square aluminum beams
2. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
3. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
4. An antenna that focuses the signal into two intense rays

Answer C. A beam antenna concentrates signals in one direction. A Yagi is the most common example.

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

1. Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements
2. Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
3. Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible
4. Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage

Answer A. Loading means adding inductors (coils) to radiating elements to make an antenna electrically longer than its physical size.

How is the polarization of an antenna described?

1. By the shape of the driven element
2. By the orientation of the electric field
3. By the orientation of the magnetic field
4. By the direction of radiation

Answer B. Antenna polarization is described by the orientation of the electric field.

What is a disadvantage of a handheld radio transceiver’s short flexible antenna compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

1. It has low efficiency
2. It transmits only circularly polarized signals
3. It is more susceptible to receiver desensitization
4. It only works on analog signals, not digital ones

Answer A. The short flexible "rubber duck" antenna on a handheld is much less efficient than a full-size quarter-wave antenna.

Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?

1. Lengthening it
2. Inserting coils in series with radiating wires
3. Shortening it
4. Adding capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires

Answer C. A shorter antenna resonates at a higher frequency. Lengthening it or adding loading lowers the resonant frequency.

Which of the following types of antennas offers the greatest gain?

1. 5/8 wave vertical
2. Isotropic
3. J pole
4. Yagi

Answer D. A Yagi (beam) antenna focuses energy in one direction, giving it the most gain of these choices. An isotropic antenna is the theoretical zero-gain reference.

What is a potential drawback of using a handheld VHF transceiver inside a vehicle that lacks an externally mounted antenna?

1. Signal strength is reduced due to the shielding effect of the vehicle
2. The bandwidth of the antenna will decrease, increasing SWR
3. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
4. The handheld will overheat due to reflected power in the vehicle

Answer A. A car's metal body shields signals, so a handheld used inside a vehicle without an outside antenna has reduced signal strength.

Why is a 19-inch-long vertical antenna often used on 2 meters?

1. It has high gain
2. It is a resonant half-wave
3. It is a resonant quarter-wave
4. It has low RF radiation exposure

Answer C. A quarter wavelength at 2 meters (146 MHz) is about 19 inches, so a 19-inch vertical is a resonant quarter-wave.

What is an advantage of a 5/8-wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service compared to a 1/4-wave antenna?

1. It has more gain
2. It radiates at a higher angle
3. It has lower SWR
4. It has lower impedance

Answer A. A 5/8-wave whip has more gain than a 1/4-wave whip, concentrating more energy toward the horizon.

In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

1. Equally in all directions
2. Off the ends of the antenna
3. In the direction of the feed line
4. Broadside to the antenna

Answer D. A half-wave dipole radiates most strongly broadside (perpendicular) to the wire, and least off the ends.

What is antenna gain?

1. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power
2. The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
3. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna
4. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna

Answer C. Antenna gain is the increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna. It does not add power: it redirects it.

Which of the following connectors should be carefully taped for weather protection when used outdoors?

1. PL259
2. BNC
3. Type N
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. PL-259, BNC and Type N connectors are not inherently waterproof outdoors. Seal and tape them to keep water out.

What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?

1. 8 ohms
2. 50 ohms
3. 600 ohms
4. 12 ohms

Answer B. 50 ohms is the standard coax impedance in amateur radio.

Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?

1. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations
2. It has less loss than any other type of feed line
3. It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
4. It is less expensive than any other type of feed line

Answer A. Coax is the most popular feed line because it is easy to use and needs few special installation considerations. It is not the lowest-loss option.

What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

1. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
2. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
3. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
4. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used

Answer A. An antenna tuner (coupler) matches the antenna system's impedance to the transmitter's output impedance, usually 50 ohms.

What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?

1. The characteristic impedance decreases
2. The loss decreases
3. The characteristic impedance increases
4. The loss increases

Answer D. Coax loss increases as frequency increases.

Which of the following connector types is most suitable as an RF connector for frequencies above 400 MHz?

1. PL-259
2. Type N
3. RS-213
4. DB-25

Answer B. Type N connectors work well above 400 MHz. PL-259 (UHF) connectors are better suited to HF and lower VHF.

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

1. They are preferred for microwave operation
2. They are watertight
3. They are commonly used at HF and VHF frequencies
4. They are a bayonet-type connector

Answer C. PL-259 connectors are commonly used at HF and VHF. They are not watertight and are not ideal for microwaves.

Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?

1. Water intrusion into coaxial connectors
2. High SWR
3. Multiple connectors in the line
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Water in connectors, high SWR and multiple connectors all add loss in a coax line.

What can cause erratic changes in SWR?

1. Local thunderstorm
2. Loose connection in the antenna or feed line
3. Over-modulation
4. Overload from a strong local station

Answer B. A loose connection in the antenna or feed line can cause erratic SWR changes.

What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?

1. There is no significant difference between the two types
2. RG-58 cable has two shields
3. RG-213 cable has less loss at a given frequency
4. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels

Answer C. RG-213 is thicker than RG-58 and has less loss at a given frequency.

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss?

1. 50-ohm flexible coax
2. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
3. Air-insulated hardline
4. 75-ohm flexible coax

Answer C. Air-insulated hardline has the lowest loss of these feed lines.

What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

1. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line
2. The ratio of amplifier power output to input
3. The transmitter efficiency ratio
4. An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection

Answer A. SWR (standing wave ratio) measures how well a load, such as an antenna, is matched to a transmission line.

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery that lacks internal protection circuitry?

1. Touching both terminals with your hands can cause electrical shock
2. Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion
3. RF emissions from a nearby transmitter can cause the electrolyte to emit poison gas
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A 12-volt battery can deliver huge current. Shorting its terminals can cause severe burns, a fire, or even an explosion. 12 volts is generally not a shock hazard to touch.

What health hazard is posed by electrical current flowing through the body?

1. It may cause injury by heating body tissue
2. It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
3. It may cause involuntary muscle contractions
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Current through the body can heat tissue, disrupt the electrical functions of cells (including the heart), and cause involuntary muscle contractions. All are hazards.

In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V AC cable?

1. Neutral
2. Hot
3. Equipment ground
4. Negative

Answer B. In U.S. 120 V AC wiring, black is hot, white is neutral, and green or bare is the equipment ground.

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

1. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a component
2. To remove power in case of an overload
3. To limit current and prevent shocks
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. A fuse removes power by opening the circuit when too much current flows (an overload).

Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?

1. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
2. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
3. Excessive current could cause a fire
4. Voltage drop in the higher current fuse could result in excessively low voltage to the device

Answer C. A larger fuse lets far more current flow before it opens. Wires and parts can overheat and start a fire before the fuse blows.

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

1. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
2. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground
3. Ensure all capacitors used for high-voltage DC are fully discharged before working inside equipment
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Three-wire grounded cords, a common safety ground, and discharging high-voltage capacitors before working inside equipment all help prevent shock.

Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?

1. At the output connector of a transceiver
2. At the antenna feed point
3. At the AC power service panel
4. On a grounded panel near where feed lines enter the building

Answer D. Install lightning arresters on a grounded panel near where the feed lines enter the building.

Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?

1. In series with the hot conductor only
2. In series with the hot and neutral conductors
3. In parallel with the hot conductor only
4. In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors

Answer A. Fuses and breakers go in series with the hot conductor only. Never put one in the neutral.

What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

1. Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape
2. Keep them as far apart as possible
3. Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap
4. Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation

Answer C. All external ground rods and earth connections should be bonded together with heavy wire or conductive strap. This keeps them at the same potential.

What hazard exists when rapidly charging or discharging an unprotected battery?

1. Overheating or out-gassing
2. Excess output ripple
3. Electric shock
4. Overvoltage

Answer A. Charging or discharging an unprotected battery too fast can make it overheat or give off gas (out-gassing), which can lead to fire or explosion.

What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?

1. Circulating currents in the dc filter
2. Leakage flux in the power transformer
3. Voltage transients from kickback diodes
4. Charge stored in filter capacitors

Answer D. Filter capacitors can hold a dangerous charge after a power supply is turned off. Discharge them before working inside.

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

1. Ensure that the voltmeter has very low impedance
2. Ensure that the voltmeter and its leads are rated for use at the voltages being measured
3. Ensure that the circuit is grounded through the voltmeter
4. Ensure that the voltmeter is set to the correct frequency

Answer B. When measuring high voltage, make sure the meter and its test leads are rated for that voltage.

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

1. Put a drip loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system
2. Make sure all ground wire bends are right angles
3. Ensure that connections are short and direct
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Lightning ground connections should be short and direct. Bends and extra length add inductance, which impedes the fast lightning current.

What is required when climbing an antenna tower?

1. Have sufficient training on safe tower climbing techniques
2. Use appropriate tie-off to the tower at all times
3. Always wear an approved climbing harness
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. Tower climbing requires training, an approved climbing harness, and staying tied off at all times.

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

1. When no electrical work is being performed
2. When no mechanical work is being performed
3. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
4. Never

Answer D. Never climb a tower without a helper or observer present.

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

1. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times
2. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
3. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. When putting up a tower, look for overhead power lines and stay well clear of them. Contact with power lines is a leading cause of antenna-related deaths.

What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?

1. Secure the guy line if the turnbuckle breaks
2. Prevent loosening of the turnbuckle from vibration
3. Provide a ground path for lightning strikes
4. Provide an ability to measure for proper tensioning

Answer B. A safety wire through a turnbuckle keeps vibration from loosening it.

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

1. Add the height of the antenna to the height of the power line and multiply by a factor of 1.5
2. The height of the power line above ground
3. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
4. Enough so that if the antenna falls, no part of it can come within 10 feet of the power wires

Answer D. Place an antenna far enough from power lines that, if it falls, no part can come within 10 feet of the wires.

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

1. This type of tower must never be painted
2. This type of tower must never be grounded
3. This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Never climb a crank-up tower unless it is fully retracted or mechanical safety locking devices are installed.

Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?

1. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
2. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
3. A connection between the tower base and a cold-water pipe
4. Separate eight-foot ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other

Answer D. Good tower grounding uses a separate eight-foot ground rod for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and to each other.

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

1. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
2. The antenna may unbalance the power transformer, causing power fluctuations
3. The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines
4. All these choices are correct

Answer C. Utility poles carry high-voltage lines. An antenna on a utility pole could contact those lines.

Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

1. Use only non-insulated wire
2. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
3. Sharp bends must be avoided
4. Common grounds must be avoided

Answer C. Avoid sharp bends in lightning grounding conductors. Lightning current tends to jump at sharp bends instead of following the wire.

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

1. FCC Part 97 rules
2. Local electrical codes
3. FAA tower lighting regulations
4. UL recommended practices

Answer B. Grounding requirements for towers and antennas are set by local electrical codes, not by FCC Part 97.

What type of radiation are radio signals?

1. Gamma radiation
2. Ionizing radiation
3. Alpha radiation
4. Non-ionizing radiation

Answer D. Radio signals are non-ionizing radiation: they do not carry enough energy to ionize atoms.

Which of the following bands has the lowest maximum permissible exposure for RF safety?

1. 3.5 MHz
2. 50 MHz
3. 440 MHz
4. 1296 MHz

Answer B. Maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits are lowest from 30 to 300 MHz, because the human body absorbs RF most efficiently in that range. 50 MHz falls inside it.

How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?

1. It increases by a factor of 3
2. It decreases by 50 percent
3. It increases by a factor of 2
4. There is no adjustment allowed for lower duty cycle

Answer C. Exposure limits are based on average exposure. Halving the duty cycle (100% to 50%) doubles the allowable power density.

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

1. Frequency and power level of the RF field
2. Distance from the antenna to a person
3. Radiation pattern of the antenna
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. RF exposure depends on frequency and power, distance from the antenna, and the antenna's radiation pattern.

Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

1. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
2. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
3. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
4. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

Answer D. The body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others (resonance), so exposure limits vary with frequency.

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

1. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
2. By calculation based on computer modeling
3. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
4. All these choices are correct

Answer D. You may check RF exposure compliance by calculation (such as FCC OET Bulletin 65), by computer modeling, or by measurement with calibrated equipment.

What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?

1. Electrocution
2. RF burn to skin
3. Exposure to ionizing radiation
4. All these choices are correct

Answer B. Touching an antenna while transmitting can cause an RF burn to the skin.

Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?

1. Relocate antennas
2. Relocate the transmitter
3. Increase the duty cycle
4. All these choices are correct

Answer A. Moving antennas farther from people reduces RF exposure. Increasing duty cycle would increase it.

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

1. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
2. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed
3. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
4. By using only Underwriter Laboratories approved transmitting equipment

Answer B. Re-evaluate your station's RF exposure whenever you change the transmitter or antenna system.

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

1. It affects the average exposure to radiation
2. It affects the peak exposure to radiation
3. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss
4. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier

Answer A. Exposure limits are based on average exposure over time. Duty cycle (the percentage of time transmitting) directly affects that average.

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

1. The difference between the lowest and highest power output of a transmitter
2. The difference between the PEP and the average power output of a transmitter
3. The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
4. The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting

Answer C. Duty cycle is the percentage of time the transmitter is actually transmitting during the averaging period.

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

1. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause chemical changes in cells and damage DNA
2. RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter
3. RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
4. RF radiation is perfectly safe

Answer A. RF radiation does not have enough energy to cause chemical changes in cells or damage DNA. That is what separates it from ionizing radiation. It can still heat tissue.

Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?

1. The FCC
2. The station licensee
3. Anyone who is near an antenna
4. The local zoning board

Answer B. The station licensee is responsible for ensuring no one is exposed to RF above the FCC limits.